Biotechnology Question bank MCQS

Biotechnology MCQS

Biotechnology MCQS
Biotechnology Question bank MCQS

1. Basics of Gene structure and function

  1. Which of the following is correctly matched
    (a) Johannsen———- linkage
    (b) Mendel————– gene
    (c) Garrod————– father of human genetics
    (d) Morgan————- factor
  2. Term biotechnology was coined by
    (a) Karl Erkey
    (b) Friedrich Miescher
    (c) Altmam
    (d) A.E.Garrod
  3. The transforming factor in living cells was first of all discovered by
    (a) Avery, Macleod and McMarty
    (b) Griffith
    (c) Hershey and chase
    (d) Emil Fischer
  4. Which among the following showed isotopically (32P and 35S) DNA to be genetic material using bacteriophages
    (a) Hershey and chase
    (b) Emil Fischer
    (c) A.E.Garrod
    (d) Both a and b
  5. Which of the following is correctly matched
    (a) Monoclonal antibodies————-Fire and Mello
    (b) RNA interference——————-Temin and Baltimore
    (c) Reverse transcription—————kohler and Milstein
    (d) RT PCR——————————-SYBER green
  6. PCR works on the principle of
    (a) Peltier effect
    (b) Thompson effect
    (c) Both
    (d) None
  7. Gene is a
    (a) Segment of DNA that controls protein synthesis
    (b) Segment of DNA that controls RNA synthesis
    (c) Functional segment of DNA
    (d) None of the above
  8. Which of the following is correctly matched
    (a) Beadle and tatum——– non-correlation between genome size and complexity
    (b) C-value—————— Amount of DNA in genome
    (c) C-value paradox———- transposons
    (d) McClintock—————— one gene-one peptide hypothesis
  9. Which technique is used to detect introns in eukaryotic genome
    (a) Cherenkov light technique
    (b) Autoradiography
    (c) Pyrosequencing
    (d) R-loop technique
  10. New genes can be acquired by an organism by which method
    (a) By duplication and divergence of already existing genes
    (b) Gene fission and fusion
    (c) By lateral gene transfer
    (d) All the above
  11. New genes can originate de novo from non-coding region of DNA in which of the following
    (a) Maize
    (b) Trypanosoma
    (c) Tetrahymena
    (d) Drosophila
  12. Which of the following is an example of single multigene family
    (a) Hemoglobin genes
    (b) r-RNA genes
    (c) Myoglobin genes
    (d) None of the above
  13. Which of the following is true about paralogous genes
    (a) Have got sequences similarities
    (b) Arise due to duplication and divergence
    (c) Present in same organisms
    (d) All of the above
  14. Orthologous genes in animals arise due to
    (a) Speciation
    (b) Convergence
    (c) Divergence
    (d) Both a and c
  15. Which of the following is true about pseudogenes
    (a) Functional variants of normal genes
    (b) Indicate the changing nature of genome
    (c) depend on the rate of gene duplication and loss
    (d) All of the above
  16. Globin pseudogenes are
    (a) Conventional or non- processed
    (b) Processed
    (c) Both
    (d) None of the above
  17. Which of the following is not true about processed pseudogenes
    (a) Originates through retrotransposition
    (b) Lack introns and a promotor region
    (c) Contain polyguanylate signal and are flanked by direct repeats
    (d) All above are true
  18. Alphoid DNA is
    (a) Alpha helical form of DNA
    (b) Centromeric DNA sequence in humans
    (c) Primitive DNA type
    (d) Promiscuous DNA
  19. Which of the following is not true about replication dependent histones
    (a) Transcripts lack poly A tail
    (b) Synthesized during s-phase
    (c) H1 is having low molecular weight
    (d) H4 is most conserved
  20. Replication dependent histones are synthesized during which phase
    (a) G1 phase
    (b) S phase
    (c) G2 phase
    (d) M phase
  21. Which of the following is replication independent histone
    (a) H1º
    (b) H1t
    (c) H5
    (d) H3.3
  22. Among replication dependent histones which is having high molecular weight
    (a) H1
    (b) H3
    (c) H4
    (d) H2B
  23. Among replication dependent histones which are most conserved
    (a) H1, H2B
    (b) H3, H4
    (c) H1, H2A
    (d) H4,H1
  24. Nucleosome as structural unit of chromosome was described by
    (a) R. Korenberg
    (b) Johanssen
    (c) Benzer
    (d) Watson and Crick
  25. Which of the following is an acidic protein
    (a) H1º
    (b) H1t
    (c) Kornberg’s enzyme
    (d) H2A
  26. Which of the following is correctly matched
    (a) Mononucleosomes——–147 bp
    (b) Trimmed nucleosomes—–165 bp
    (c) Core particles—————50-70 bp
    (d) Linker DNA—————- 200 bp
  27. Which of the following is called bond of life
    (a) Ionic bond
    (b) Covalent bond
    (c) wander wall’s interactions
    (d) Hydrogen bond
  28. Which of the following is not true about histone chaperones
    (a) Have less affinity for histones
    (b) Present in nucleoplasm
    (c) They are acidic proteins
    (d) Facilitate the delivery of histones
  29. The organization of 30nm fibre during chromosome formation can be understood by
    (a) Solenoid model
    (b) Zigzag model
    (c) Scaffold model
    (d) Both a and b
  30. Acetylation of histones may bring which change
    (a) Increase gene expression
    (b) Decrease gene expression
    (c) Remain static
    (d) Does not affect
  31. Which amino acid residue is involved during histone acetylation
    (a) Arginine
    (b) Serine
    (c) Threonine
    (d) Lysine
  32. Bromodomain is
    (a) Brominated amino acid residues of proteins
    (b) Highly variable region of immunoglobin
    (c) Dock site on acetylated lysines in histones
    (d) Conserved domains of oligomeric proteins
  33. Methylation of histones may bring which change
    (a) Increase gene expression
    (b) decrease gene expression
    (c) may either increase or decrease
    (d) Remain static
  34. Chromodomain is
    (a) Coloured domain of oligomeric protein
    (b) Highly variable region of immunoglobin
    (c) Dock site on methylated amino acid residues in histones
    (d) Conserved domains of oligomeric proteins
  35. Which amino acid residues are involved during histone methylation
    (a) Lysine, threonine
    (b) Glutamate, arginine
    (c) Lysine, arginine
    (d) Serine, threonine
  36. Histone methylation plays a fundamental role in
    (a) Heterochromatin formation
    (b) X-chromosome inactivation
    (c) Genome imprinting
    (d) All of the above
  37. Which structural form of DNA is left-handed
    (a) B-DNA
    (b) Z-DNA
    (c) A-DNA
    (d) H-DNA
  38. Which DNA form exists under physiological conditions
    (a) A-DNA
    (b) Z-DNA
    (c) H-DNA
    (d) B-DNA
  39. A linear segment of DNA is about 975 kD in weight. How many nucleotides are in it and what is its length respectively
    (a) 3000, 1020 nm
    (b) 1000, 500nm
    (c) 1500, 1000nm
    (d) 1000, 1200nm
  40. There are 103 nucleotides in a gene having one intron of 3.4nm and a non-stop codon. How many amino acid residues will be in a peptide on translation
    (a) 30
    (b) 40
    (c) 50
    (d) 60
  41. The lambda-max for DNA and RNA falls at
    (a) 260nm
    (b) 280nm
    (c) 250nm
    (d) 300nm

1.(c) 2.(a) 3.(b) 4.(a) 5.(d) 6.(a) 7.(c) 8.(b) 9.(d) 10.(d) 11.(d) 12.(b) 13.(d) 14.(d) 15.(d) 16.(a) 17.(c) 18.(b) 19.(c) 20.(b) 21.(d ) 22.(a ) 23.(b) 24.(a ) 25.( c) 26.(b ) 27.(d) 28.(a ) 29.(d ) 30.(a ) 31.(d ) 32.(c ) 33.(c ) 34.(c) 35.(c) 36.(d) 37.(b) 38.(d) 39.(a) 40.(a) 41.(a)

2. DNA replication and transcription

  1. Which of the following is not related to okazaki fragments
    (a) Lagging strand
    (b) DNA polymerase III
    (c) DNA ligase
    (d) DNA gyrase
  2. Which of the following is true about origin of replication
    (a) It is a trans-acting site
    (b) It is called autonomously repeated sequence in yeast
    (c) It is GC-rich stretch
    (d) OriC in prokaryotes is about 500bp long
  3. Circular DNA replication can be explained by which model
    (a) Theta replication model
    (b) Sigma replication model
    (c) Both
    (d) None
  4. Which of the following is not a nuclease
    (a) dnaB
    (b) HindIII
    (c) Topoisomerase
    (d) Maturase
  5. Which is the only prokaryotic DNA polymerase having 5′-3′ exonuclease activity
    (a) DNA polymerase I
    (b) DNA polymerase II
    (c) DNA polymerase III
    (d) DNA polymerase IV
  6. Which class of antibiotics inhibit the activity of DNA gyrase
    (a) Third generation cephalosporins
    (b) Aminoglycosides
    (c) Sulphonomides
    (d) Fluoroquinolones
  7. Which of the following is true about aphidicolin
    (a) It is a mutagen
    (b) Tetracyclic diterpenoid
    (c) Inhibitor of mammalian nuclear DNA polymerase
    (d) Both b and c
  8. In eukaryotes RNA primers are removed by
    (a) DNA polymerase
    (b) RNase E
    (c) RNase H
    (d) Flap endonuclease
  9. DNA replication in eukaryotes is
    (a) Semi-consevative
    (b) Semi-discontinuous
    (c) Dispersive
    (d) Both a and b
  10. Which of the following is true about replication
    (a) The velocity of nucleotide addition per fork is higher in prokaryotes than eukaryotes
    (b) DNA polymerase V is error prone polymerase
    (c) DNA polymerase III is having high processivity
    (d) All of the following
  11. Which of the following eukaryotic DNA polymerases is correctly matched
    (a) DNA polymerase α———– repair mechanism
    (b) DNA polymerase β——— leading strand replication
    (c) DNA polymerase γ———– mitochondrial DNA replication
    (d) DNA polymerase δ———- lagging strand replication
  12. Which of the following polymerase is used for high fidelity DNA synthesis
    (a) Taq polymerase
    (b) Pfu polymerase
    (c) Polymerase V
    (d) Both a and b
  13. Which of the following is direct mutation repair in DNA
    (a) Pyrimidine dimers
    (b) O6-methylguanosine
    (c) Both
    (d) None
  14. Which of the following is not correct about SOS response in E. Coli
    (a) Occurs due to severe DNA damage
    (b) RecA protein participates in it
    (c) It is responsible for error prone replication
    (d) Occurs due to high lactose in media
  15. Which among the following is cofactor for RNA polymerase
    (a) Zn2+
    (b) Mg2 +
    (c) Fe2+
    (d) Both a and b
  16. Which of the following is not true about RNA polymerase
    (a) σ factor helps in promotor recognition
    (b) β and β’ occur in catalytic core
    (c) working direction is 5′-3′
    (d) it requires primer for activity
  17. Which of the following sigma factor is correctly matched with its function
    (a) σ54————-oxidative and osmotic response
    (b) σ32———– nitrogen assimilation
    (c) σ28———— flagellar synthesis
    (d) σ38————- heat shock response
  18. Which among the following is adenosine analog that blocks RNA synthesis
    (a) Cordycepin
    (b) Ricin
    (c) Rifampicin
    (d) 5-bromouracil
  19. Which of the following is not true about Rho protein
    (a) It is an ATP- dependent hexamer
    (b) It binds to RNA at rut sequence
    (c) It disrupts nascent RNA-DNA complex
    (d) It is an endonuclease
  20. Which eukaryotic RNA polymerase is resistant to ɑ-amanitin
    (a) RNA pol. I
    (b) RNA pol. II
    (c) RNA pol. III
    (d) All of the following
  21. Which among the following is false
    (a) miRNA is synthesized by RNA pol. II
    (b) mitochondrial RNA polymerase is encoded by nuclear genes
    (c) chloroplast RNA polymerase is encoded by both nuclear and chloroplast genes
    (d) the DNA strand from which transcription occurs is called (+) strand
  22. Which reaction is used for removal of introns
    (a) Methylation
    (b) Acetylation
    (c) Trans-esterification
    (d) O-glycosylation
  23. Which of the following is true about cajal bodies
    (a) located within nucleus
    (b) Centres of post-transcriptional modification of SnRNAs and snRNPs
    (c) Migrate between nucleoplasm and cytoplasm
    (d) Both a and b
  24. Regulated alternate splicing is used for sex determination in
    (a) C. elegans
    (b) Drosophila spp.
    (c) Trypanosoma spp.
    (d) Babesia spp.
  25. In trans-splicing the removed introns form which type of structure
    (a) T-shaped
    (b) X-shaped
    (c) Y-shaped
    (d) I-shaped
  26. Trans-splicing has been reported in
    (a) Babesia
    (b) Trypanosoma
    (c) Thieleria
    (d) Anaplasma
  27. Which of the following does not occur in 5′-3′ direction
    (a) RNA editing
    (b) m-RNA degradation
    (c) m-RNA surveillance
    (d) both a and b
  28. which of the following is true about Group 1 introns
    (a) found in transcripts of pre-rRNA genes and some organelle genes
    (b) act as ribozymes
    (c) found in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes
    (d) All of the following
  29. Which among the following is false
    (a) Group 1 introns were discovered first of all in Tetrahymena thermophile
    (b) Group 2 introns are found in transcripts of some organelle genes
    (c) Both group1 and 2 introns act as ribozymes
    (d) They require ATP for splicing
  30. Which of the following is not true about riboswitches
    (a) Elements within mRNA that bind to ligands and regulate mRNA expression
    (b) Cis-acting regulatory elements
    (c) Most often located at 5′ UTR
    (d) Tri-domanic structure
  31. Which of the following is dsRNA
    (a) tRNA
    (b) miRNA
    (c) hnRNA
    (d) all of the above
  32. The endonucleases found in RNA-induced silencing complex(RISC) are called
    (a) Aconitase
    (b) Dicer
    (c) Drosha
    (d) Argonaute
  33. Which of the following is a component of microprocessor complex during miRNA synthesis
    (a) Drosha
    (b) Pasha
    (c) DGCR8
    (d) All of the following
  34. Pre-miRNA derived from introns are called
    (a) Pasha
    (b) Mitons
    (c) Specialized introns
    (d) Mirtrons
  35. Which of the following is an initiator codon
    (a) AUG
    (b) GUG
    (c) UUG
    (d) All of the above
  36. Which of the following was first codon to be discovered
    (a) UUU
    (b) AUG
    (c) GUG
    (d) AAA
  37. The secondary structure of tRNA looks like______ while its 3-D structure looks like____
    (a) Clover leaf, inverted-L
    (b) L-shaped, clover leaf
    (c) X-shaped, Y-shaped
    (d) None of the above
  38. Which of the following rRNA act as peptidyl transferases in prokaryotes and eukaryotes respectively
    (a) 16S,18S
    (b) 16S,28S
    (c) 23,5S
    (d) 23S,28S
  39. Which of the following is not true about shine-dalgarno sequence
    (a) Polypurine sequence located upstream of initiator codon
    (b) Complementary to 3′ end of 16S rRNA
    (c) Helps in attachment of smaller subunit with mRNA
    (d) Conserved sequence found in both eukaryotes and prokaryotes
  40. Selection of initiator codon in eukaryotes is facilitated by surrounding nucleotides called
    (a) preceding sequence
    (b) Kozak sequence
    (c) Trailer sequence
    (d) shine-dalgarno sequence
  41. Which enzyme is used in chemical proof reading of proteins
    (a) Peptidyl transferase
    (b) Aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase
    (c) Pronase
    (d) Both a and b
  42. Cap snatching mechanism of host mRNA is associated with which virus
    (a) Lentivirus
    (b) Retroviruse
    (c) Myxoviruse
    (d) Influenza virus
  43. Which of the following binds to 50S subunit and inhibits protein synthesis
    (a) Streptomycin
    (b) Chloramphenicol
    (c) Tetracycline
    (d) Cyclohexidine
  44. Diptheria toxin inhibits protein synthesis in eukaryotes by inactivating
    (a) 60S subunit
    (b) 40S subunit
    (c) eEF2
    (d) eEF1
  45. In protein splicing the removed residues are called
    (a) Inteins
    (b) Exteins
    (c) Integreins
    (d) Zymogen
  46. Protein synthesis on ribosomes occurs from
    (a) N-terminal to C-terminal
    (b) C-terminal to N-terminal
    (c) Both
    (d) None
  47. Which of the following is used for detection of post-transcriptional modification of proteins
    (a) Western bloating
    (b) Northern bloating
    (c) Southern bloating
    (d) Eastern bloating
  48. IPTG is an
    (a) Inducer
    (b) Repressor
    (c) Both
    (d) None
  49. Which of the following is not true about transposons
    (a) Frequency of movement varies from 10-7to 10-2
    (b) Movement is independent of donor and recipient site
    (c) Sometimes called selfish DNA
    (d) They were first of all found in drosophila
  50. Which of the following uses replicative transposition to evade host immune system
    (a) Trypanosoma brucei
    (b) Trypanosoma cruzi
    (c) Trypanosoma evansi
    (d) Babesia bovis
  51. Ty elements of yeast are examples of
    (a) Class I transposons
    (b) Class II transposons
    (c) retroposons
    (d) retrotransposons
  52. which of the following is not true about retrotransposons
    (a) retrovirus like elements
    (b) have gag and pol genes but lack env genes
    (c) Ty elements and copia elements are retrotransposons
    (d) Found in prokaryotes only

1.(d) 2.(b) 3.(c) 4.(a) 5.(a) 6.(d) 7.(d) 8.(c) 9.(d) 10.(d) 11.(c) 12.(b) 13.(c) 14.(d) 15.(d) 16.(d) 17.(c) 18.(a) 19.(d) 20.(a) 21.(d ) 22.(c ) 23.(d ) 24.(b ) 25.( c) 26.(b ) 27.(d ) 28.(d ) 29.(d ) 30.(d ) 31.(b ) 32.(d ) 33.(d ) 34.(d ) 35.(d) 36.(a) 37.(a) 38.(d) 39.(d) 40.(b) 41.(b) 42.(d ) 43.( b) 44.(c ) 45.(a) 46.(a) 47.(d) 48.(a) 49.(d) 50.(a) 51.(d) 52.(d)

3. Recombinant DNA technology

  1. Which of the following is not correct about type II restriction enzymes
    (a) Cut within or close to recognition sequence
    (b) Require Mg2+ as cofactor
    (c) Have separate endonuclease and methylase activities
    (d) Recognize palindromic sequences and produce only blunt ends
  2. Which was the first restriction enzyme to be discovered
    (a) AluI
    (b) HinfI
    (c) HindII
    (d) HindIII
  3. Restriction enzymes were isolated for the first time from which bacteria
    (a) Escherichia coli
    (b) Haemophilus Influenzae
    (c) Thermitis aquatics
    (d) Bacillus amyloliquefaciens
  4. Which of the following is the target sequence for EcoRI
    (a) 5’GAATTC3′ 3’CTTAAG5′
    (b) 5’GGATCC3′ 3’CCTAGG5′
    (c) 5’GGCC3′ 3’CCGG5′
    (d) 5’TCGA3′ 3’AGCT5′
  5. First genetically engineered product licensed for human use was
    (a) Somatotropin
    (b) Β-endorphins
    (c) Thyrotropin
    (d) Humalin
  6. First genetically engineered vaccine licensed for human use
    (a) Polio vaccine
    (b) Hepatitis B vaccine
    (c) Rabies vaccine
    (d) BCG vaccine
  7. Star activity is associated with which enzyme
    (a) DNA polymerase I
    (b) DNA polymerase II
    (c) DNA polymerase III
    (d) Type II restriction endonucleases
  8. Which of the following enzyme prevents recircularization of plasmid vectors
    (a) Alkaline phosphatases
    (b) T4 ligase
    (c) Polynuleotide kinase
    (d) Terminal deoxyribonucleotidyl transferase
  9. Which of the following is not desirable characteristic of a vector
    (a) Ability to carry foreign DNA
    (b) Suitable selectable marker
    (c) Easy to isolate and purify
    (d) Narrow host range
  10. Which of the following is genetically engineered plasmid
    (a) pUC8
    (b) TOL
    (c) RP4
    (d) pBR322
  11. Which of the following is true about pBR322
    (a) Most popular plasmid with 4362 bp
    (b) Bears replication module of E.coli
    (c) It has ampicillin and tetracycline resistant genes
    (d) All of the above
  12. Which of the following is not true about shuttle vectors
    (a) Constructed by rDNA technology
    (b) YEP is an E. coli base shuttle vector
    (c) Contain two origin of replications
    (d) Propagate only in prokaryotes
  13. Bacteriophages are better cloning vectors than plasmids due to
    (a) More efficient for large DNA fragments
    (b) Easy screening
    (c) Efficient for smaller fragments
    (d) Both a and b
  14. Which of following vectors have cohesive ends called cos site
    (a) Phage M13
    (b) λ phage vectors
    (c) YAC
    (d) BAC
  15. λ phage vectors are constructed by deleting which part of λ phage genome
    (a) Terminal lysogenic part
    (b) Middle lysogenic part
    (c) Terminal lytic part
    (d) Middle lytic part
  16. Which of following vector is suitable for cloning ssDNA
    (a) Phage M13
    (b) λ phage vectors
    (c) YAC
    (d) BAC
  17. Which of the following vectors is correctly matched according to correct base pairs they can clone
    (a) Plasmid—————45kb
    (b) Bacteriophage——24kb
    (c) Cosmid————-100kb
    (d) YAC—————-10kb


1.(d) 2.(c) 3.(b) 4.(a) 5.(d) 6.(b) 7.(d) 8.(a) 9.(d) 10.(d) 11.(d) 12.(d) 13.(d) 14.(b) 15.(b) 16.(a) 17.(b)

4. Animal Cell Culture

  1. The foundation for the development of cell culture technique was laid by
    (a) Roux
    (b) Arnold
    (c) Ross
    (d) Harrison
  2. Who is regarded as the father of tissue culture
    (a) Harrison
    (b) Arnold
    (c) Ross
    (d) Roux
  3. The limited replicative capacity of human cells in culture is called
    (a) Hayflick effect
    (b) Brownian effect
    (c) Contact inhibition
    (d) None of the above
  4. HAT medium used for the selection of fused hybrid cells in hybridoma culture was introduced by
    (a) Littlefield and Miller
    (b) Kohler and Milstein
    (c) Frish and Jentoft
    (d) Eagle and Karl
  5. Which of the following is HGPRT+ and survives in HAT medium
    (a) B cells
    (b) Myeloma cells
    (c) Hybrid cells
    (d) Both a and c
  6. Use of trypsin to free cells from tissue matrix for cell culture was described by
    (a) Jolly and Koch
    (b) Beebe and Ewing
    (c) Sims and Stillman
    (d) Gottieb Maberland
  7. Cells used in feeder layer
    (a) Should have ability to divide
    (b) Have ability to metabolize
    (c) These properties are obtained by exposing cells to irradiation
    (d) All of the above
  8. Cell culture technique became simpler only after advent of
    (a) Antibiotics
    (b) Trypsin
    (c) Cell culture media
    (d) All of the following
  9. Which of the following is true regarding animal cell culture technique
    (a) Lactic acid is source of carbon
    (b) Cells have high requirement of L-glutamine
    (c) Cholin is necessary for cell adhesion and cytoskeleton
    (d) All of the following
  10. Which of the following is the structural fibre in cell culture system
    (a) Collagen
    (b) Elastin
    (c) Fibronectin
    (d) Both a and b
  11. Optimum pH required for the growth of mammalian cells is
    (a) 5.3-7.0
    (b) 6.5-7.0
    (c) 7.2-7.4
    (d) 8.1-8.9
  12. The optimum temperature of any cell or organ is called
    (a) Critical temperature
    (b) Threshold temperature
    (c) Ceiling temperature
    (d) None of the above
  13. For culture of avian cells the optimum temperature requirement is
    (a) 37 ̊C
    (b) 40 ̊C
    (c) 42 ̊C
    (d) 35 ̊C
  14. Which of the following is the oldest cell line
    (a) Hela cell line
    (b) Vero cell line
    (c) CHO cell line
    (d) BHK cell line
  15. Which cell line is used for production of recombinant sex hormones
    (a) BHK cell line
    (b) Vero cell line
    (c) Hela cell line
    (d) CHO cell line
  16. The ratio of CO2 : O2 used in cell culture system should be
    (a) 1:5
    (b) 1:13
    (c) 1:19
    (d) 1:25
  17. Which of the following is most commonly used cell fusing agent
    (a) PEG
    (b) NaNO3
    (c) Sendai virus
    (d) Polyvinyl alcohal
  18. Which of the following virus is used for cell fusion
    (a) Sendai virus
    (b) Herpes virus
    (c) Myxovirus
    (d) All of the following
  19. Which of the following is easy and rapid method to interpret viability of cells in culture system
    (a) Trypan blue dye exclusion
    (b) Neutral red assay
    (c) Fluorescein dye assay
    (d) All of the following
  20. Vero cell line is obtained from Kidney cells of
    (a) African green monkey
    (b) Chinese hamster
    (c) Calf
    (d) Swine

1.(a) 2.(a) 3.(a) 4.(a) 5.(d) 6.(c) 7.(d) 8.(d) 9.(d) 10.(d) 11.(C) 12.(c) 13.(b) 14.(a) 15.(d) 16.(c) 17.(a) 18.(d) 19.(a) 20.(a)

5. Embryo Technology

  1. First mammal produced by IVF was
    (a) Calf
    (b) Mouse
    (c) Rabbit
    (d) Monkey
  2. Most ideal method of oocyte collection from ovaries is
    (a) Slicing of ovaries
    (b) Follicle aspiration
    (c) Follicle puncturing
    (d) None of the above
  3. Which of the following media is used for maturation of oocytes
    (a) DMEM
    (b) TCM-199
    (c) Ham’s F-10
    (d) Both b and c
  4. Which of the following is not supplemented with in vitro maturation media
    (a) Estradiol
    (b) FSH
    (c) LH
    (d) Progesterone
  5. Which of the following is the indicator of oocyte maturation
    (a) Presence of polar body in PVS
    (b) Cumulus expansion
    (c) Germinal vesicle break down
    (d) All of the above
  6. Which of the following chemical is not used for oocyte maturation
    (a) DMAP
    (b) Calcium ionophore
    (c) Caffeine
    (d) Both a and b
  7. Which technique holds promise in future for conservation of endangered species
    (a) Intraspecies cloning techniques
    (b) Interspecies cloning techniques
    (c) IVF
    (d) Both a and b
  8. Large offspring syndrome is associated with
    (a) IVF
    (b) Cloning
    (c) Both
    (d) None
  9. In cloning, donor somatic cells should be in which stage of cell cycle
    (a) G1
    (b) S
    (c) G2
    (d) G0
  10. Which embryo stage is preferred for embryo transfer in cloning protocols
    (a) Late blastocyst
    (b) Early blastocyst
    (c) Late morula
    (d) Both b and c
  11. Which of the following cloning technique renders zona pellucida intact
    (a) HMC
    (b) SCNT
    (c) Both
    (d) None
  12. Which of the following is embryo sexing method
    (a) HY antigens
    (b) PCR
    (c) G6PDH activity
    (d) All of the following
  13. Which of the following is transcriptional totipotent marker
    (a) OCT4
    (b) NANOG
    (c) SOX2
    (d) All of the following
  14. In cloning protocols while performing ennucleation which chemical is used for relaxing cellular cytoskeleton
    (a) Phytohaemagglutinin
    (b) Cytochalasin B
    (c) Pronase
    (d) Heparin
  15. Conducting a research trial on cloned animals is better than non-cloned animals due to
    (a) Easy availability
    (b) Absolute phenotypic control
    (c) Absolute genotypic control
    (d) Both b and c
  16. Which of the following is the first transgenic animal
    (a) Goat
    (b) Rabbit
    (c) Monkey
    (d) Mice
  17. Which of following is reprogramming enhancer used in cloned embryonic reconstruction
    (a) TSA
    (b) Heparin
    (c) SAHA
    (d) Both a and c
  18. In HMC cloning technique which enzyme is commonly used for digesting zona pellucida
    (a) Trypsin
    (b) Pepsin
    (c) Pronase
    (d) Hyaluronidase
  19. Which of the following species oocytes and embryos are highly susceptible to cryodamage
    (a) Sheep
    (b) Buffalo
    (c) Swine
    (d) Buffalo
  20. In ICSI the sperm is injected in
    (a) Nucleoplasm
    (b) Cytoplasm
    (c) Perivitelline space
    (d) None

1.(c) 2.(b) 3.(d) 4.(d) 5.(d) 6.(c) 7.(b) 8.(b) 9.(d) 10.(d) 11.(b) 12.(d) 13.(d) 14.(b) 15.(d) 16.(d) 17.(d) 18.(c) 19.(c) 20.(b)

Post a Comment

share your words ...

Last Article Next Article